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Discussion History Main / LanguageFluencyDenial

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Changed line(s) 3 from:
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Why do they have to claim to be unable to speak the language? There\'s no reason for it to be that specific. If they\'re speaking a language that the other person doesn\'t understand, it makes no difference whether they say, \"I don\'t speak [insert language here]\" or \"I understand you perfectly,\" because either way, they just give the impression that they can\'t speak the other person\'s language.
to:
Why do they have to claim to be unable to speak the language? There\\\'s no reason for it to be that specific. If they\\\'re speaking a language that the other person doesn\\\'t understand, it makes no difference whether they say \\\"I don\\\'t speak [insert language here]\\\" or \\\"I understand you perfectly\\\" because either way, they just give the impression that they can\\\'t speak the other person\\\'s language.
Changed line(s) 3 from:
n
Why do they have to claim to be unable to speak the language? There\'s no reason for it to be that specific. If they\'re speaking a language that the other person doesn\'t understand, it makes no difference whether they say, \"I don\'t speak English\" or \"I understand you perfectly,\" because either way, they just give the impression that they can\'t speak English.
to:
Why do they have to claim to be unable to speak the language? There\\\'s no reason for it to be that specific. If they\\\'re speaking a language that the other person doesn\\\'t understand, it makes no difference whether they say, \\\"I don\\\'t speak [insert language here]\\\" or \\\"I understand you perfectly,\\\" because either way, they just give the impression that they can\\\'t speak the other person\\\'s language.
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