Discussion History Main / OlderThanTheyThink

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright, or--even better--just \\\'\\\'edit\\\'\\\' the example to replace Gran Colombia with Haiti, rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge as a [[RepairDontReply reply]]. (I took care of that.)

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time, and by the time the Revolutionary War occurred, much of the Americas were claimed as European colonies, regardless of the native nations that still existed). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright, or simply \\\'\\\'editing\\\'\\\' the example to replace Gran Colombia with Haiti, rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge as a [[RepairDontReply reply]]. (I took care of that.)

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time, and by the time the Revolutionary War occurred, much of the Americas were claimed as European colonies, regardless of the native nations that still existed). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge. (I took care of that.)

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time, and by the time the Revolutionary War occurred, much of the Americas were claimed as European colonies, regardless of the native nations that still existed). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge. (I took care of that.)

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time, and by the time the Revolutionary War occurred, most of the Americas were seen as European colonies, regardless of the native nations that still existed). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge. (I took care of that.)

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.

Removed {{natter}} concerning the whole \\\"calling people American\\\" example:

--> 12/May/10 at 07:58 PM by \\\'\\\'\\\'67.149.29.70\\\'\\\'\\\'
-->***DidNotDoTheResearch. Haiti was independent from France at least 15 years before Gran Columbia.
--> 14/May/10 at 01:25 AM by \\\'\\\'\\\'Dryhad 121.44.253.4\\\'\\\'\\\'
--> ** Does the age of that particular terminology make it any more correct?

First of all, the troper who decided to make an AccuracyAttack edit crooning how the previous troper was wrong really should have just \\\'\\\'deleted\\\'\\\' the comment about Gran Colombia outright rather than anonymously flaunting his or her historical knowledge.

Second, {{Dryhad}}, who added the [[ConversationInTheMainPage conversational edit]] attempting to question the validity of the example sounds very much like the [[TheMeanBrit Mean Brits]] who harass Americans (and sometimes Canadians) for using a different dialect of English as \\\"incorrect.\\\"

The point of the example, which ThatTroper obviously missed, is that Americans did \\\'\\\'not\\\'\\\' choose to call themselves American out of ignorance of/arrogance to other nations on the continent (as there were \\\'\\\'\\\'no other nations\\\'\\\'\\\' formed out of European colonies at the time). The English language had already made the name a convention.

Attempting to claim that the English language\\\'s usage of the word \\\"American\\\" is \\\"incorrect\\\" is like claiming that the British are wrong for calling a truck a \\\"lorry.\\\" It speaks strongly of cultural imperialism to claim that another culture\\\'s language is \\\"doing it wrong\\\" when it\\\'s clear the development was natural.